I agree that the centurion's "entimos duolos pais" is not certainly a sexual relationship, but that it was only likely considering what is known about how those words were used, and how they were not used, but I am more concerned with the Levitical passage, as are you.

The issue is not what the English translation of the Bible says, but whether or not it correctly reflects the original text, which was written in Hebrew originally. It was translated into Greek, and then the Romans burnt all the Hebrew copies they could find, leaving none except the "Dead Sea Scrolls", which (as far as I am aware) don't contain this passage. From Greek, the Bible was translated into Latin, and from Latin into English (for the KJV that you quote). Better translations start with the Greek, and some look for help at how the OT was "back-translated" into Hebrew again.

I am arguing that the Bible does not say what the KJV claims it does. It would not be the first time we mistranslated the Bible, and I doubt it would be the last time our feeble human understanding led us to misread God's Word.

In Christ,
~CSL